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Introduction of choice of Pension Funds and Investment Pattern in Tier-I of NPS

Introduction of choice of Pension Funds and Investment Pattern in Tier-I of NPS for Central Government subscribers

PENSION FUND REGULATORY AND DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY
B-14/A, Chhatrapati Shivaji Bhawan,
Qutab Institutional Area,
Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi-110016.
Ph: 011-26517501, 26517503, 26133730
Fax: 011-26517507
Website: www.pfrda.org.in

CIRCULAR

PFRDA/2019/12/REG-PFPF/1

Date: 8th May, 2019

CIRCULAR

SUBJECT : Introduction of choice of Pension Funds and Investment Pattern in Tier-I of NPS for Central Government subscribers – reg.

Reference is invited to the Gazette Notification F.No.1/3/2016-PR dated 31st January, 2019 issued by Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services, modifying Ministry of Finance’s Notification No. 5/7/2003-ECB dated 22nd December, 2003, based on the Government’s decision on the recommendations of a Committee set up to suggest measures for streamlining the implementation of National Pension System (NPS).

2. Accordingly, it has been decided to introduce the following options for Central Government subscribers:

(i) Choice of Pension Fund: As in the case of subscribers in the private sector, the Government subscribers shall also be allowed to choose any one of the pension funds including Private sector pension funds They could change their option once in a year. However. the current provision of combination of the Public-Sector Pension Funds will be available as the default Option for both existing as well as new Government subscribers.

(ii) Choice of Investment pattern: The following options for investment choices shall be offered to Government employees:

(a) The existing scheme in which funds are allocated by the PFRDA among the three Public Sector Undertaking fund managers based on their past performance in accordance with the guidelines of PFRDA for Government employees shall continue as default scheme for both existing and new subscribers.

(b) Government employees who prefer a fixed return with minimum amount of risk shall be given an option to invest 100% of the funds in Government securities (Scheme G),

(c) Government employees who prefer higher returns shall be given the options of the following two Life Cycle based schemes:

(A) Conservative Life Cycle Fund with maximum exposure to equity capped at 25% – LC-25.

(B) Moderate Life Cycle Fund with maximum exposure to equity capped at 50% – LC-50.

The subscribers may exercise one of the above choices of Investment Pattern twice in a financial year.

(iii) Implementation of choices to the legacy corpus: Transfer of a huge legacy corpus of more than Re 1 lakh crore in respect of the Government sector subscribers from the existing Pension Fund Managers is likely to impact the market. It may be practically difficult for the PFRDA to allow Government subscribers to change the Pension Funds or investment pattern in respect of the accumulated corpus, in one go. Therefore, for the present, change in the Pension Funds or investment pattern is allowed in respect of incremental flows only.

(iv) Transfer of legacy corpus in a reasonable time frame: PFRDA shall draw up a scheme in due course for transfer of accumulated corpus as per new choices of Government subscribers in a reasonable time frame of say five years. Once PFRDA draws up this scheme, change in the Pension Funds or investment pattern shall be allowed in respect of the accumulated corpus in accordance with that scheme.

3. For investment option as per para 2 (ii) (a) above, all other terms and conditions as contained in the investment guidelines issued by the Authority dated 03_03.2015 for NPS Schemes (Applicable to Scheme CG, Scheme SC, Corporate CG and NPS Lite Schemes and APY) and subsequent amendments made thereto shall be applicable. Further, for investment options as per para 2 (ii) (b) or 2 (ii) (c) (A) or 2 (ii) (c) (B) above, all other terms and conditions as contained in the investment guidelines issued by the Authority dated 04.05.2017 in respect of NPS schemes {Other than Govt. Sector (CG & SG), Corporate CGI NPS Lite and AP Y} and subsequent amendments made thereto shall apply.

4. This circular is issued in exercise of powers of the Authority under sub-clause (b) of sub-section (2) of Section 14 read wtth Section 23 of the PFRDA Act, 2013 and sub- regulation (1) of Regulation 14 of the PFRDA (Pension Fund) Regulations, 2015.

The above arrangements ere applicable w.e.f. 1st April, 2019.

sd/-
(A G. Das)
Executive Director

Signed Copy

Certificate for tax deducted at source in Part B of Form No. 16 – CBDT

Certificate for tax deducted at source in Part B of Form No. 16 – CBDT

Government of India
Ministry of Finance
Central Board of Direct Taxes
Directorate of Income-tax (Systems)
New Delhi

Notification No. 09/2019

New Delhi, 06th, May, 2019

Subject: Procedure, format and standards for issuance of certificate for tax deducted at source in Part B of Form No. 16 in accordance with the provisions of section 203 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with the Rule 31 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 through TRACES- reg.

Section 203 of the Income-tax Act.1961 (“the Act”) read with the Rule 31 of the Income-tax Rules 1962 (“the Rules”) stipulates furnishing of certificate of tax deduction at source (TDS) by the deductor to the deductee specifying therein the prescribed particulars such as amount of TDS, valid permanent account number (PAN) of the deductee, tax deduction and collection account number (TAN) of the deductor, etc. The relevant forn1 for TDS certificate in case of deduction under section 192 of Chapter XVII-B of the Act is Forn1 No. 16 which is to be issued annually. TDS Certificate in Form No 16 has two parts viz. Part A and Part B (Annexure). Part A contains details of tax deduction and deposit and Part B (Annexure) contains details of income.

2. Vide Central Board of Direct Taxes Notification No. 36/2019 dated 12.04.2019, ‘Pait B (Annexure) of Form 16’ and ‘Annexure II of Form no. 24Q’ in Appendix II to the Income tax Rules, 1962 have been amended.

3. In exercise of the powers delegated by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, under sub-rule (6A) of Rule 31 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, the Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) hereby specifies the procedure, formats and standards for the purposes of generation and download of certificates from “TDS Reconciliation Analysis and Correction Enabling System” or (https://www.tdscpc.gov.in) (hereinafter called TRACES Portal), as below:

3.1 ISSUE OF PART b OF FORM NO. 16 FOR DEDUCTION OF TAX AT SOURCE MADE ON OR AFTER 1st day of April, 2018:

All deductors (including Government deductors who deposit TDS in the Central Government Account through book entry) shall be able to issue the TDS certificate in Part B of Form No. 16 (by generation and download through TRACES Portal) in respect of all sums deducted on_or after the 1st day of April, 2018 under the provisions of section 192 of Chapter XVII-B provided that the relevant TDS statement for the fourth quarter i.e. Form 24Q is furnished alongwith duly filled in Annexure II of Form 24Q as substituted vide Central Board of Direct Taxes Notification No. 36/2019 dated 12.04.2019. To ensure generation of accurate TDS certificate in Part B of Form No. 16, the deductor(s) need to report correct data in Annexure II of Form 24Q. The TRACES generated Form No. 16 shall have a unique TDS certificate number.

3.2 AUTHENTICATION OF TDS CERTIFICATE IN FORM NO. 16:

The deductor, issuing the TDS certificate in Form No. 16 by downloading it from the TRACES Portal, shall, before issuing to the deductee authenticate the correctness of contents mentioned therein and verify the same either by using manual signature or by using digital signature in accordance with sub-rule (6) of Rule 31.

3.3 ‘Part B (Annexure)’ of Form No. 16 item nos. 2(f) and 10(k):

The item nos. 2(f) and 10(k) in Part B (Annexure) of Form 16 required to be filled-in by the deductor manually shall be made available at the bottom of the TRACES generated Form 16 (Part B) and the deductor shall duly fill details, where available, in item numbers 2(f) and 10(k) before furnishing of Part B (Annexure) to the employee. The deductors who opt to authenticate Part B of Form No. 16 manually will be provided with the download of the Part B of Form No. 16 alongwith these item nos. 2(f) and 10(k) appearing at the bottom of the Form. The deductor shall duly fill details, where applicable, in item numbers 2(f) and 10(k) before furnishing of Part B (Annexure) to the employee. The deductors who opt to authenticate Part B of Form No. 16 using Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) will be provided with the download of Part B of Form No. 16 without item nos. 2(f) and 10(k) and therefore these details shall be required to be prepared by the employer and issued to the employee, where applicable, before furnishing of Part B to the employee.

3.4 Sub rule (3) of Rule 31 of the Income tax Rules, 1962 prescribes the time limit for issuance of Form 16 by the deductor to the employee. Currently, Form 16 should be issued by 15th June of the Financial Year immediately following the financial year in which income was paid and tax deducted.

4. This issues with approval of the Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems).

(Ravi Kant Choudhary)
JCIT (OSD) (CPC-TDS),
O/o the Pr. Director General oflncome-tax (Systems),
New Delhi

Signed Copy

Qualification Pay renamed as Railway Accounts Examination Allowance – 7th CPC

Qualification Pay renamed as Railway Accounts Examination Allowance – 7th CPC

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS
(RAILWAY BOARD)

PC-VII No. 136/2019
RBE No. 71/2019

No. E(P&A)I-2012/SP-1/Genl-1

New Delhi, dated 01.05.2019

The General Managers and Principal Financial Advisers,
All Indian Railways & Production Units.

Sub :- Modifications in the instructions issued w.r.t. implementation of recommendations of Seventh Central Pay Commission accepted by the Government — Qualification Pay renamed as Railway Accounts Examination Allowance.

Ref :- Board’s letter of even number dated 03.01.2019 (RBE No. 02/2019)

*****

Consequent upon the decisions taken by the government on the recommendations of the Seventh Central Pay Commission relating to revision of allowances, it was decided to change the nomenclature of Qualification Pay to Railway Accounts Examination Allowance vide Board’s letter of even number dated 03.01.2019 and the rates of Railway Accounts Examination Allowance (erstwhile Qualification Pay) were revised as under:

Category Existing Rates Revised Rates
Clerks Gr.II (Accounts Clerks)/Typists on passing App-II Examination Rs.180 Pm Rs .405 pm
Sr. Accounts Assistant/Accounts Assistant/StockVerifier/Typist/ Stenographer on passing App-III Examination First Year Rs. 240 pm Rs. 540 pm
Second Year Rs. 420 pm Rs. 945 pm

2. It has now been noted that the Existing Rates of Railway Accounts Examination Allowance (erstwhile Qualification Pay) mentioned under column 2 of the above table as recorded by the 7th CPC in its Report were factually not correct. In view of the said factual error, the matter has been reviewed by the Board and it has been decided that the rates as indicated in the above table, the actual rates of the Railway Accounts Examination Allowance (erstwhile Qualification Pay) should be read as under :

Category Existing Rates Revised Rates
Clerks Gr.II (Accounts Clerks)/Typists on passing App-II Examination Rs.120 pm Rs  270 pm
Sr. Accounts Assistant/Accounts Assistant/StockVerifier/Typist/ Stenographer on passing App-III Examination First Year Rs. 160 pm Rs. 360 pm
Second Year Rs. 280 pm Rs. 630 pm

3. The amount of Railway Accounts Examination Allowance will further rise by 25 percent each time DA rises by 50 percent.

Also Read : 7th CPC Pay Matrix

4. This allowance will not be treated as a part of pay for the purpose of fixation of pay in promotion to next higher post.

5. The revised rates of this allowance shall be admissible with effect from 1st July, 2017.

6. This issues with the concurrence of the Finance Directorate of the Ministry of Railways.

7. Hindi version will follow.

8. Please acknowledge receipt.

(N. P. Singh)
Joint Director (P&A)-I
Railway Board

Signed Copy

Clarification regarding Oxygen Charges for treatment at private hospitals under CGHS

Clarification regarding Oxygen Charges for treatment at private hospitals under CGHS

B-12014/01/2016/-JCM/EHS Section
Government of India
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
Department of Health & Family Welfare

545-A Nirman Bhawan,New Delhi

Dated the 12th April , 2019.

OFFICE MEMORANDUM

Sub : Clarification regarding Oxygen Charges for treatment at private hospitals under CGHS

With reference to the above mentioned subject the undersigned is directed to clarify that the CGHS rate for ‘Oxygen’ for treatment in the Private Hospitals were revised w.e.f 01.10.2014 and the rate is Rs. 58 per Hour in NABH (National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers) Accredited Hospitals and Rs 50 per Hour in non-NABH Accredited hospitals and is at Code No 512 in the CGHS Rate list , which is available on CGHS Website at cghs.gov.in

[Rajeev Attri]
Under Secretary to Government of India

Signed Copy

Notification of Highly Active Field Areas Allowance – MoD

Notification of Highly Active Field Areas – MoD

Govt. Sanction for extending the payment of HAFA allowance for the period from 1st Jan 2019 to 31st Dec 2019 has been received. Units/formations are advised to publish Part II orders as per the status of location, quoting Corps Notification No. & date, Sr No. & requisite certificate therein, in respect of affected officers

No 8(3)/2000/D(Pay/ Services)
Government of India
Ministry of Defence
****
New Delhi, dated 8th March, 2019.

To

The Chief of the Army Staff
The Chief of the Air Staff

Subject: Notification of Highly Active Field Areas.

Sir,

I am directed lo refer to this Ministry’s letter of even number dated 26th February, 2018 on the above subject and to convey the approval of the competent authority to the payment of Highly Active Field Area Allowance for the areas as specified in Appendix to this Ministry’s letter No. 8(3)/2000/D(Pay/Services) dated 24th May, 2001 for the period from 1st January, 2019 lo 31st December, 2019 at the rates specified in this Ministry’s letter No. 1(16)/2017/D(Pay/Services) dated 18th Sept., 2017.

2. This issues with the concurrence of Finance Division of this Ministry vide MoD(Fin) ID No. 5(19)/ 2001-AG/PA-Vol.II dated 6.3.2019.

Yours faithfully,

(Arun Kumar)
Under Secretary to the Govt. of India

Signed Copy

Preventive Health checkup for ECHS Beneficiaries

Preventive Health checkup for ECHS Beneficiaries

Central Organisation ECHS
Adjutant General’s Branch
Integrated HQ of MoD (Army)
Thimayya Marg, Near Gopinath Circle,
Delhi Cantt-110010

B/49770/AG/ECHS/Treatment/Policy

16 Apr 2019

IHQ of MoD (Navy)/Dir ECHS (N)
DAV Subroto Park
HQ Southern Command (A/ECHS)
HQ Eastern Command (A/ECHS)
HQ Western Command (A/ECHS)
HQ Central Command (A/ECHS)
HQ Northern Command (A/ECHS)
HQ South Western Command (A/ECHS)
HQ Andaman & Nicobar Command (A/ECHS)
AMA ECHS, Embassy of India, Nepal
All Regional Centres

INTRODUCTION OF PREVENTIVE HEALTH CHECKUP FOR ECHS BENEFICIARIES

1. Ref Para 9 (h) of Gol (MoD) letter No 24 (8)/03/US (WE)/D(Res) dt 19 Dec 2003.

2. With operationalisation of all PCs, Medical Examination/ Health Check up/ Screening test within the available facilities in the ECHS PCs is to be implemented. Some tests like Hb A1C , Thyroid, Pulmonary, Cardiac & Renal Function Test etc are not available in ECHS PCs whereas other tests are available in varying degrees. While comprehensive annual health check on outsourced basis will be implemented once our proposal is approved by MoD (DoESW), Health check up limited to available facilities at PC without affecting medical treatment will be implemented.

3. ECHS aims to provide quality healthcare to ESM pensioners and their dependants through a network of ECHS Polyclinics, Service Medical Facilities and Civil Empanelled/ Govt hospitals spread across the country. Keeping in view of the importance of diagnosis of chronic non communicable health problems at the preventive level, it is necessary to introduce preventive health check up for all ECHS beneficiaries above the age group of 40 yrs.

4. Since a large population of ECHS beneficiaries are above 40 yrs of age and are in high risk age group to develop various diseases, it is essential that a system be put in place wherein timely preventive screening for various ailments like life style diseases, screening for common cancers in men and women, age related ailments etc may be done. This aids in early detection, monitoring, mgmt and follow up of most of the common ailments besides being cost effective in long term.

5. Time tested old concept of ‘Prevention is better than cure’ has already been adopted by CGHS vide Gol, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare letter No A. 17020/1/2010-MS dated 21 Oct 2011. It’s importance has been well accepted by private sector too wherein comprehensive preventive health check up/ Executive preventive health check up etc are being adopted.

6. Presently, since majority of population are seeking medical advice very late after already having got affected by ailments due to non existence of preventive health checkups in initial stages, the same is resulting in long term continuous advocation of multiple drugs, prolonged periods of hospitalisation with poor outcomes and this has been adversely affecting health care of our esteemed veterans .

7. Investigations as at Para 8 below as per age group are considered essential taking into consideration Gol, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare letter No 11-25/2009 CGHS/SZ/CGHS(P) dated 22 Dec 2011 and have been forwarded for approval by Govt.

8. Age & Frequency Co-relation.

(a) Age It will be counted with recorded date of birth and will entitle an ECHS beneficiary for the said tests after completion of years in which tests are specified. For example, if DOB of an ECHS beneficiary is 15 Feb 76 then he/she becomes entitled for first test after the scheme is implemented since he/she is already more than 40 years old.

(b) Frequency. Once tests is done say on 01 May 19 then next test can be done only after 01 May 24 with DOB of 15 Feb 76 as frequency between 40 to 59 years is recommended once in five years

Age Frequency Male Female
40-59 Yrs Once in 5 yr Hb, TLC, DLC, ESR
Urine-RE/ME,BS-F/ PP, ECG
Lipid Profile
Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid, X-ray chest (PA view)
HbA1C
Hb, TLC, DLC,ESR
Urine-RE/ME ,BS-F/ PP, ECG,
Lipid Profile
Urea,
Creatinine, Uric acid,
X-ray chest (PA view)
HbA1C, Pap smear,
HPV Test,
Mammography
60-79 Yrs Once in 2 yr Hb, TLC , DLC,ESR
Urine-RE/ME,BS-F/ PP, ECG,
Lipid Profile
Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid,
X-ray chest (PA view).
HbA1C
PSA Test
Hb, TLC , DLC, ESR
Urine-RE/ME,BS-F/ PP, ECG
Lipid Profile
Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid,
X-ray chest (PA view).
HbA1CP ap smear, HPV Test
Thyroid Profile
Mammography
80 & above Every year Hb, TLC, DLC, ESR
Urine-RE/ME,BS-F/ PP,
ECG,
Lipid Profile
Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid,
X-ray chest (PA view) HbA1C
PSA Test
Hb, TLC, DLC, ESR
Urine-RE/ME,BS-F/ PP,
ECG
Lipid Profile
Urea, Creatinine, Uric acid,
X-ray chest (PA view).
HbA1C
Pap smear, HPV Test

9. Preventive health care and checkups are an important and accepted public health issue in present day scenario. Introduction of such facility for veterans shall go a long way in sensitizing the ECHS beneficiaries towards timely adoptions of life style modification. It also aids health care providers in early detection, mgt and prevention of aggravation of chronic ailments there by increasing the quality, life expectancy and satisfaction of the target clientele.

10. Entitlement of Health Checkup.

(a) All ECHS beneficiaries meeting twin criteria of being ESM and drawing pension from Defence Budget.

(b) Those drawing FMA in lieu of OPD treatment will not be eligible.

11. Salient Aspects of Execution.

(a) The Preventive Health Check up will be limited to facilities in ECHS Polyclinics subject to medical treatment of patients not being adversely affected.

(b) No referral for these tests will be issued to anyone either for Service Hosps/ Empanelled facilities till approved by Govt.

(c) HQ Comds/ controlling HQs can nominate days/ timings for these health checkups in PCs without affecting the healthcare of veterans requiring medical treatment.

12. The instrs will be modified based on environmental feedback .

(DK Dubey)
Gp Capt
Offg Dir (Med)
for MD ECHS

Signed Copy

Posting of Husband and Wife at the same station – Railway Board Clarification

Posting of Husband and Wife at the same station – Railway Board Clarification

RBE NO. 68/2019

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
MINISTRY OF RAILWAYS
(RAILWAY BOARD)

No. E(NG)I-2019/TR/6

New Delhi, dated 26.04.2019

The General Managers (P),
All Zonal Railways & Production Units.
(As per standard list).

Sub: Posting of husband and wife at the same station.

Attention is invited to Board’s letter No. E(NG)I-2009/TR/29 dated 02.02.2010 which contains detailed guidelines governing the posting of spouses at the same station. Earlier, some Zonal Railways had raised doubts about the ambiguity caused by the term “all India service” appearing in parenthesis in the Sub-heading/title of Para 3(e) of Board’s letter ibid. AIRF has also recently drawn Board’s attention to this and pointed out that this is causing confusion as regards applicability of the guidelines to Railway Servants.

2. The matter has accordingly been carefully considered by Board. The guidelines dated 02.02.2010 were issued in the context of at least one of the spouses being a Railway Servant. To remove any ambiguity/confusion regarding its applicability, it has been decided that the phrase “all India service” appearing in parenthesis in the title of para 3(e) of Board’s letter ibid should be treated as deleted. All other content of the said letter ‘remains unchanged.

Hindi version will follow.

Please acknowledge receipt.

(M.K. Meena)
Deputy Director Estt (N)
Railway Board

Source : AIRF

One Rank One Pension Writ Petition for Fixation of pension

One Rank One Pension Writ Petition for Fixation of pension

ITEM NO.1

COURT NO.9

SECTION X

SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
RECORD OF PROCEEDINGS

Writ Petition(s)(Civil) No(s). 419/2016

INDIAN EX SERVICEMEN MOVEMENT & ORS.

Petitioner(s)

VERSUS

UNION OF INDIA & ORS.

Respondent(s)

(WITH IA 33253/2017 FOR AMENDMENT OF WRIT PETITION)

Date : 01-05-2019 This petition was called on for hearing today.

CORAM :

HON’BLE DR. JUSTICE D.Y. CHANDRACHUD
HON’BLE MR. JUSTICE HEMANT GUPTA

For Petitioner(s)

Mr. Huzefa Ahmadi, Sr. Adv.
Mr. Balaji Srinivasan, AOR
Mr. Arunava Mukherjee, Adv.
Mr. Rohan Sharma, Adv.
Mr. Siddhant Kohli, Adv.
Ms. Pallavi Sengupta, Adv.
Ms. Garima Jain, Adv.
Mr. Abhishek Bharti, Adv.
Ms. Pratiksha Mishra, Adv.
Ms. Srishti Govil, Adv.
Ms. Vaishnavi Subranmanyam, Adv.
Mr. Rohitash Kr. Sharma, Adv.

For Respondent(s)

Mr. Rana Mukherjee, Sr. Adv.
Ms. Priyanka Das, Adv.
Mr. Charanya L. Kumaran, Adv.
Mr. A.K. Sharma, Adv.
Ms. Sheena Taqui, Adv.
Ms. Kanika Sharma, Adv.
Mr. Mukesh Kumar Maroria, AOR

UPON hearing the counsel the Court made the following

ORDER

During the course of the hearing, the principal submission of the petitioners is that the recommendation of the Koshyari Committee for the grant of One Rank One Pension (OROP) was endorsed by the Budgetary Speech of the Finance Minister on 17 February 2014 and by the Minister of Defence on 26 February 2014, following which the Controller General of Defence Accounts was directed to work out modalities. This was further re-affirmed on 10 July 2014 by the Finance Minister and on 2 December 2014 by the Minister of State for Defence. However, the Union government, on 7 November 2015, while implementing OROP adopted a modified definition of the expression under which the gap between the rates of pension of current and past pensioners would be bridged at“periodic intervals”.

The petitioners have highlighted specifically three aspects of the anomalies which have arisen. They are summarised in a written note of submissions tendered before the Court, which is extracted below:

“(i) Fixation of Pension on calendar year of 2013 instead of FY of 2014: Fixation of pension as per calendar year 2013 would result in past retirees (pre 2014) getting less pension of one increment than the soldier retiring after 2014.

(ii) Fixation of pension as mean of Min and Max pension: Fixing pension as mean of Min and Max pension of 2013 would result different pensions for the same ranks and same length of service and the past retiree would get 1.5 increment lesser on account of such fixation.

For example, if 8(i) and (ii) are implemented, two soldiers who have served for same length of years, holding the same rank will draw different pension. A Sepoy (Group Y) who retired prior to 31 Dec2013 will get Rs.6665 p.m. and another Sepoy (Group Y) who retired on and after 1 Jan 2014 would get Rs 7605 p.m. Further, on account of such implementation, a higher rank Naik soldier who retired before 31 Dec 2013 would draw a lesser pension of rs.7170p.m., than a junior rank Sepoy who retired after 1 Jan 2014 as his pension would be Rs.7605. This fact is illustrated by a tabular chart which is enclosed. (See Pg.1, CC).

Therefore, implementation of this new definition of OROP defeats the very principle of OROP by creating a class within a class of the same officers, which in practice tantamounts to one rank different pensions. This is also contrary to the judgment by this Hon’ble Court in Union of India v SPS Vains, (2008) 9 SCC 125.

Another fallacy in the new definition of OROP which detracts from the principle of OROP is:

(iii) Pension Equalization every five years:

It is submitted that Pension equalization every five years would result in the grave disadvantage to the past retirees.”

Certain concrete examples have been indicated in charts which are annexed to the note submitted before this Court by Mr Huzefa Ahmadi, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioners.

At this stage, we are of the considered view that it would be appropriate if the Union government scrutinizes the grievances which are placed before the Court in the above note. It would be appropriate and in the interest of justice if these concerns, which have been expressed on behalf of personnel, who have served the nation as members of the Armed Forces of the Union before retirement, are duly considered by the Union government at an appropriate level.

We would expect the government to seriously consider the grievances and to determine whether and, if so, to what extent, justice can be provided for the satisfaction of all concerned.

List the Writ Petition on 6 August 2019.

(SANJAY KUMAR-I)
AR-CUM-PS

(SAROJ KUMARI GAUR)
COURT MASTER

Writ Petition

Source : Supreme Court

7th CPC Pensionary Benefit from Jan 2016 for person retired on superannuation w.e.f. 31.12.2015

7th CPC Pensionary Benefit from Jan 2016 for person retired on superannuation w.e.f. 31.12.2015 : CAT Principal Bench, New Delhi Order

Central Administrative Tribunal
Principal Bench
New Delhi

OA No.571/2017

Order Reserved on: 13.02.2018
Pronounced on:17.04.2018

Hon’ble Mr. K.N. Shrivastava, Member (A)

G.C. Yadav,
S/o late Kamal Singh Yadav,
(aged about 61 years)
(retired as Deputy Secretary)
R/o H.No.1627/3, Lane No.6,
Rajiv Nagar, Mata Road,
Gurugram-122001.

– Applicant

(By Advocate Shri L.R. Khatana)

-Versus-

1. Union of India
Through Secretary to the Govt. of India,
Ministry of Home Affairs,
North Block, New Delhi-110001.

2. Secretary to the Govt. of India,
Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare,
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions,
North Block, New Delhi-110001.

3. Secretary to the Govt. of India,
Department of Personnel & Training,
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions,
North Block, New Delhi-110001.

-Respondents

(By Advocate Shri N.D. Kaushik)

ORDER

The applicant retired from the post of Deputy Secretary in the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India with effect from the afternoon of 31.12.2015 on attaining the age of superannuation. His date of birth is 01.01.1956. He has been deprived of the benefits of 7th Central Pay Commission’s recommendations, which came into effect w.e.f. 01.01.2016 on the ground that he retired prior to that date i.e. 31.12.2015.

2. The applicant submitted his representation dated 14.12.2015 (Annexure A-4 colly.) to the Secretary, Department of Personnel & Training (DoP&T) (respondent no.3) stating therein that he would cease to be a Government servant in the midnight of 31.12.2016 and thus acquired the status of a pensioner in the forenoon of 1st January, 2016. Hence, he is entitled to all the pensionary benefits viz. gratuity, fixation of pay/pension as per 7th Central Pay Commission’s recommendations. The representation dated 14.12.2015 of the applicant was forwarded by the Additional Secretary (S&V), DoPT to the Joint Secretary, Pension, Department of Pension and Pensioner’s Welfare (DoP&PW) vide letter dated 29.02.2016. The relevant portion of the said letter is extracted below:

“2. In his representation, Shri Yadav has contended that the pensionary benefits accrue to a person when he acquires the status of Pensioner. As per the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of S. Banerjee, the persons born on 1st January, 2015 were in Government service upto midnight of 31st December, 2015 and acquired the status of pensioner only in the forenoon of 1st January, 2016. Applying the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of S. Banerjee, the persons born on 1st January, 1956 acquired the status of pensioner only in the forenoon of 1st January, 2016. The recommendations of the 7th Pay Commission are likely to be implemented with effect from 1st January, 2016.”

3. Pursuant to the implementation of the 7th Central Pay Commission’s recommendations, DoP&PW (respondent No.2) issued Annexure A-2 Om dated 04.08.2016 revising the pension of pre-2016 pensioners/family pensioners. The grievance of the applicant is that his retiral benefits have been fixed in terms of Annexure A-2 OM, treating him as a pre-2016 retiree whereas he should be treated as a retiree w.e.f. 1.1.2016 and thus the 7th Central Pay Commission’s benefits should accrue to him.

4. Respondent No.2 considered the representation dated 14.12.2015 of the applicant, which was duly forwarded by the DoPT vide aforementioned letter dated 29.02.2016 and vide impugned Annexure A-1 OM dated 03.01.2018 has declined the request of the applicant. The relevant portions of this OM are reproduced below:

“4. In the case of Shri Yadav, he actually retired on 31.12.2015 and was not in service on 1.1.16. Judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Shri S. Benerjee has no relevance in his case. In fact Rule 5 (2) of CCS (Pension) Rules, has already been amended and as per the amended rule date of voluntary retirement is treated as the last working day. Therefore, those who retired voluntarily on 1.1.2016 would be eligible for pay and pension benefits of 7th CPC as a post 1.1.2016 retiree.

5. Since Shri Yadav retired on superannuation on 31.12.2015, he is to be treated as a pre-2016 pensioner and is accordingly entitled to the benefit in revision of pension under the OM No.38/37/46-P&PW(A)(ii), dated 4.8.16.”

5. Aggrieved by the impugned Annexure A-1 OM dated 03.01.2017, the applicant has filed the instant OA praying for the following relief:

“B) That this Hon’ble Tribunal may be pleased to hold and declare that the impugned orders/action of the respondents is illegal, arbitrary, discriminatory, unconstitutional and violative of Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution of India and quash and set aside the same and be pleased to further hold that since the Applicant superannuated with effect from the afternoon of 31.12.2015 and relinquished the charge of the post of Deputy Secretary in the afternoon of that date, he, as per law, is deemed to have effectively retired on or with effect from 1.1.2016 and therefore, cannot be treated as pre-2016 pensioner and direct the respondents to grant the retiral benefits such as fixation of pension, DCRG, commutation of pension, leave encashment etc. accordingly and pay the arrears thereof with 12% interest within a specified time-frame.”

6. Pursuant to the notices issued, the respondents entered appearance and filed their reply in which they have broadly made the following important averments:

6.1 The applicant retired from Government service on 31.12.2015 and accordingly he has been treated as a pre-2016 pensioner and his pensionary benefits have been fixed in terms of the OM dated 4.8.2016 (Annexure A-2) of the DoP&PW.

6.2 As per the provisions of FR 56(a), a Government servant whose date of birth is first of a month shall retire from service in the afternoon of the last day of the preceding month on attaining the age of 60 years. Hence, the applicant, whose date of birth is 1.1.1956 is deemed to have been retired in the afternoon of 31.12.2015.

6.3 The judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court in S. Banerjee v. Union of India, [AIR 1990 SC 295], relied upon by the applicant in para 4 (d) of the OA, is not relevant in the instant case. It is stated that Shri S. Banerjee had retired voluntarily and his date of retirement was 1.1.1986 whereas in the instant case the applicant retired on attaining the age of superannuation in the afternoon of 31.12.2015 and as such was not in service on 1.1.2016.

7. The applicant has filed rejoinder to the reply, in which no substantial issue has been raised except saying that it is settled position of law by a catena of judgments of Hon’ble Tribunal, Hon’ble High Courts and Hon’ble Supreme Court that a person whose date of birth is 1st of a month is deemed to have retired from service from that date only.

8. On completion of the pleadings the case was taken up for hearing the arguments of the parties on 13.02.2018. Arguments of Shri L.R. Khatana, learned counsel for the applicant and that of Shri N.D. Kaushik, learned counsel for the respondents were heard. Shri Khatana, besides reiterating the averments made in the OA relied on the following judgments to buttress his argument that the applicant is deemed to have retired from service on 1.1.2016 since his date of birth is 1.1.1956:

i) Judgment of the Kerala High Court in Union of India v. George, [2004 (1) ATJ 150]; held:

“16. We are unable to accept this contention. The two officials had actually continued in service till the midnight of December 31, 1995. It is only from January 1, 1996 that they had ceased to be in service and acquired the status of pensioners. Resultantly their claim to pension had to be determined at the rate prevalent on the date. This is precisely what the Tribunal has given them. The case is in no way different from that of Banerjee. In both cases, the pay had been paid till December 31”

ii) Judgment of Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in Union of India & others v. Col. Bhupinder Singh (Retd.) Major, [Writ Appeal No.3897 of 2005, dated 11.09.2009], held:

“The decision reported in 1989 Supp. 2 SCC 486 (S. Banerjee v. Union of India & Ors.) has been followed by the learned Single Judge while passing the impugned order. In that case the appellant had filed an application for voluntary retirement which was accepted from the forenoon of 1st January, 1986 and in that view of the matter, he was found to be entitled to the benefit of para 17.3 of the recommendation of the Pay Commission. This decision is not applicable to the case of the respondent in the instant case as per Army Rules, which is applicable to the respondent who retired on 31.12.1995. None of the decision cited by the respondent are applicable to the case on hand. On the other hand, the decision cited by the respondent are applicable to the case on hand. On the other hand, the decision cited by the learned counsel for the appellants are applicable on all the fours to the case on hand and the impugned order calls for interference.”

iii) Judgment of Hon’ble Andhra High Court in Union of India and Ors. V. P.S.R. Kumar Sinha and Anr.¸[2006 (2) ALT 354:2006 (3) ALD 57]; held

“6:17. Supreme Court Ruling In S. Benerjee v. Union of India , a definite finding is on record by their Lordships of the Supreme Court of mdia that when the employee has retired on the last date of the month, his date of retirement has to be treated as 1st date of succeeding month.

6:18. It is a direct decision on the issue before us.

6:19. Full Bench Decision of A.P. High Court Principal Accountant General A.P. v. C. Subba Rao While answering Point No. 2 the Full Bench of this Court categorically held as follows:

A Government servant who would be retiring on the last day of the month would cease to be Government servant by mid-night of that day and he would acquire status of pensioner and therefore he would be entitled for all the benefits given to a pensioner with effect from first day of the succeeding month.”

iv) Order of this Tribunal in Satish Kumar v. Union of Inida & Ors., [OA No.792.2004, dated 25.11.2004], held:

“It is trite law that for want of any decision to the contrary of the High Court, under whose jurisdiction the Bench of the Tribunal is situated, a decision of the High Court of another State would be binding as a precedent on the Tribunal and having regard to the decision of the Apex Court in S. Banerjee vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 295, relied upon by Kerala High Court, the case of the applicant, in all fours, is covered by the ratio decidendi of the decision of the High Court. Having regard to the fact that he is deemed to have retired on 1.4.2004 special dispensation as mentioned in para 3 of the OM ibid would apply to him.”

8.1 Shri Khatana concluded his arguments by submitting that the case of the applicant is squarely covered by the above judgments and hence the relief claimed may be granted.

9. Leaned counsel for the respondents by and large reiterated the averments made in the reply filed on behalf of the respondents.

10. I have considered the contentions of the learned counsel for the parties and have gone through the pleadings and documents annexed thereto. All the judgments of the Hon’ble High Courts as well as of the Tribunal relied upon by the applicant are primarily based on the judgment of the Hon’ble Apex Court in S. Banerjee (supra), wherein it has been held as under:-

“The question that arises for our consideration is whether the petitioner has retired on January 1, 1986. We have already extracted the order of this Court dated December 6, 1985 whereby the petitioner was permitted to retire voluntarily from the service of the Registry of the Supreme Court with effect from the forenoon of January 1, 1986. It is true that in view of the proviso to rule 5(2) of the Rules, the petitioner will not be entitled to any salary for the day on which he actually retired. But, in our opinion, that has no bearing on the question as to the date of retirement. Can it be said that the petitioner retired on December 31, 1985? The answer must be in the negative. Indeed, Mr. Anti Dev Singh, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the respondents, frankly conceded that the petitioner could not be said to have retired on December 31, 1985. It is also not the case of the respondents that the petitioner had retired from the service of this Court on December 31, 1985. Then it must be held that the petitioner had retired with effect from January 1, 1986 and that is also the order of this Court dated December 6, 1985. It may be that the petitioner had retired with effect from the forenoon of January 1, 1986 as per the said order of this Court, that is to say, as soon as January 1, 1986 had commenced the petitioner retired. But, nevertheless, it has to be said that the petitioner had retired on January 1, 1986 and not on December 31, 1985. In the circumstances, the petitioner comes within the purview of paragraph 17.3 of the recommendations of the Pay Commission.”

11. This judgment has attained finality and thus holds the field today. It is clearly held by the Hon’ble Apex Court in S. Banerjee (supra) that in case of all those Government servants whose date of birth is 1st of a month, they are supposed to have retired from that date only.

12. In the instant case, the applicant’s date of birth is admittedly 1.1.1956 and thus relying on the ratio of law laid down by the Hon’ble Apex Court in S. Banerjee (supra), he is deemed to have retired from service on 1.1.2016. Hence, he is entitled for getting all his pensionary benefits in accordance with the 7th Central Pay Commission’s recommendations. Accordingly, this OA is allowed. The impugned Annexure A-1 order is declared illegal and accordingly quashed and set aside. The respondents are directed to fix the retiral benefits of the applicant in accordance with the 7th Central Pay Commission’s recommendations which have been implemented vide O.M. No. 38/37/2016-P&PW(A)(i), (ii) & resolution dated 04.08.2016 in respect of pensioners retiring on or after 1.1.2016. This shall be done within a period of three months from the date of receipt of a certified copy of this order. No costs.

(K.N. Shrivastava)
Member (A)

ORDER COPY

E-filing of Income Tax Returns registers an increase of 19%

E-filing of Income Tax Returns registers an increase of 19%

There have been some incorrect reports in media pertaining to reduction in numbers of Income Tax Returns(ITR) e-filed during Financial Year(F.Y.) 2018-19 as compared to F.Y. 2017-18. This is factually untrue, because the figures for F.Y. 2017-18 and F.Y. 2018-19 are not directly comparable.

It is stated that during F.Y. 2017-18, out of a total of 6.74 crore ITRs which were e-filed, 5.47 crore ITRs were filed for Assessment Year(A.Y.) 2017-18 (the current year). In comparison, during F.Y. 2018-19, a total of 6.68 crore ITRs were e-filed which included 6.49 crore ITRs of current A.Y. 2018-19 marking an increase of almost 19%. This would imply that substantially larger number of taxpayers filed their ITRs electronically in the F.Y. 2018-19 as compared to F.Y. 2017-18.

Furthermore, during F.Y. 2017-18, apart from the returns for the A.Y. 2017-18, nearly 1.21 crore ITRs were filed for A.Y. 2016-17. The balance number of ITRs filed for A.Y. 2015-16 and prior A.Ys is 0.06 crore. In comparison, during F.Y. 2018-19 only 0.14 crore ITRs for A.Y. 2017-18 were filed. Thus, the apparent decrease in the number of ITRs filed during F.Y. 2018-19 pertaining to earlier years was due to an amendment in Section 139(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 brought in vide Finance Act, 2017, w.e.f. 01.04.2018, which mandated that a revised return could be furnished only upto the end of the relevant Assessment Year. As a result, only 0.14 crore ITRs pertaining to A.Y. 2017-18 were filed during F.Y. 2018-19 as these were the revised ITRs for the relevant A.Y. which could only be filed due to change in law and no other ITR of any earlier A.Y. could be filed in view of the amended provisions of law.

These figures are also available in the Tab-> ‘Filing growth (A.Y.)’ on the e-filing website.

It is also stated that the number of paper ITRs for A.Y. 2017-18 was only 9.2 lakh (1.5% of total ITRs filed) and the number of paper ITRs for A.Y. 2018-19 is 4.8 lakh (0.6% of total ITRs filed). As per the above details, it is evident that most of the taxpayers have steadily switched to e-filing which is clear from the dwindling numbers of paper returns filed for A.Y. 2018-19 compared to earlier years.

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